Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE ExamPharmacology DPEE MCQs / By fdspharmacy Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE Exam Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE Exam 1 / 64Niclosamide belongs to agents. Anthelmintic Antiprotozoal Antiviral Antifungal 2 / 64__ is a selective 5-HT3 antagonist having potent anti-emetic properties. Ondansetron Metoclopramide Chlorpromazine Meclozine 3 / 64_____ is a CDCA analogue formed from chenodiol by colonic bacteria. Chenodeoxycholic acid Dehydrocholic acid Sodium dehydrocholate Ursodeoxycholic acid 4 / 64Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme, and for therapeutic purposes it is obtained from the glandular layer of hog___. Stomach Liver Intestine Pancreas 5 / 64___ is a type of estrogen that forms during pregnancy. Estrone Estradiol Estetrol Estriol 6 / 64Clopamide is a ____ diuretic High efficacy diuretics Medium efficacy diuretics Adjunctive diuretics Low diuretics 7 / 645-Hydroxytyrptamine is commonly known as_____ Serotonin Histamine Prostaglandins Angiotensin 8 / 64Which is an example of directly acting expectorant? Guaiphenesin Ammonium chloride Ambroxol Carbocisteine 9 / 64Salbutamol is an example of ______ bronchodilators. Long acting sympathomimetic agents Xanthine derivatives Short acting sympathomimetic agents Anti-cholinergic agents 10 / 64Which of the following does not cause hazy cornea in a newborn? Endothelial dystrophy Mucopolysaccharidosis Sclerocornea Droplet keratopathy 11 / 64PRA stands for: Protein Regular Activity Plasma Rennin Activity Plasma Rennin Action Protein Rennin Activity 12 / 64PRA stands for: Protein Regular Activity Plasma Rennin Activity Plasma Rennin Action Protein Rennin Activity 13 / 64The COMT stands for: Catechol-O-Mono Transferase Catechol-O-Mono Thaimine Catechol-O-Methyl Transferase Carboxylic-O-Methyl Transferase 14 / 64The LSD stands for: Lenoiec Acid Diethylamide Lysergic Amine Diethylamide Lysergic Acid Diethylamide Lysergic Acid Diamide 15 / 64Which of the following drug is long acting barbiturates? Secobarbitone Phenobaribitone Amylobarbitone Methohexitone 16 / 64Which one of these is an injectable anaesthetic? Procaine Lignocaine Tetracaine All of the above 17 / 64Amantadine is an example of ______. Drugs that replace dopamine Direct DA receptor agonist Drugs that release dopamine Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist 18 / 64Sulfocamphocainum is an example of Analeptics of direct action Analeptics of reflexive action Analeptics of mixed action Drugs that influence medulla spinalis 19 / 64Lamotrigine is an example of________. Iminostilbenes Phenyltriazine PVC succinimides Benzodiazepines 20 / 64Which of the following are gaseous anaesthetics? Nitrous oxide Enflurane Halothane Ether 21 / 64Colchicine is used to_____. Inhibit uric acid synthesis Inhibit neutrophil migration into joint Increase uric acid excretion Inhibit inflammation and pain 22 / 64Paracetamol is used to treat a number of problems____. Reduce fever Migraine Pain associated with rheumatism All of the above 23 / 64Which one is not a side effect of aspirin? Analgesic nephropathy Aggravation of acute gout Gastrointestinal toxicity Arthritis 24 / 64Which one is not a classification of NSAIDS? Non-selective COX inhibitors Preferential COX-2 inhibitors Selective COX-2 inhibitors Competitive inhibitors 25 / 64Which one is a disadvantage of Ether? High margin of safety Cross tolerance with ethyl alcohol Brilliant analgesic Economical 26 / 64Which of the following process involves excretion of drugs through the saliva and this process involves passive diffusion? Biliary excretion Pulmonary excretion Mammary excretion Salivary excretion 27 / 64The BBB stands for: Body-Brain Barrier Blood-Brain Barrier Blood-Brain Body Blood-Barrier Bind 28 / 64Movement of a drug from its site of administration into the plasma or central compartment is known as: Absorption Metabolism Distribution Excretion 29 / 64Which of the following factor is not responsible for affecting the drug metabolism? Genetic Body temperature Humidity Inhibitors 30 / 64______ is the first purine analogue beneficial for neoplastic diseases. 6-Thioguanine 6-Mercaptopurine Azathioprine 5-Fluorouracil 31 / 64Bone marrow depression (neutropenia and anaemia) is the most common adverse effect of Zidovudine Lamivudine Stavudine Zalcitabine 32 / 64___ induces CYP3A4 enzyme responsible for its own metabolism. Indinavir Lamivudine Efavirenz Ribavirin 33 / 64Which was the first member of Quinolones to be introduced in mid 1960? Ciprofloxacin Norfloxacin Nalidixic acid Ofloxacin 34 / 64_____ is administered in enteric coated tablets to protect it from decomposing in gastric juice. Phenazopyridine Nalidixic acid Nitrofurantoin Methenamine 35 / 64______ is a water soluble, synthetic analogue of vitamin K. Phytonadione Menaquinone Menadione sodium bisulphite Menadione sodium diphosphate 36 / 64Organs involved in the process of haematopoiesis are________ Bone marrow, heart, and liver Bone marrow, spleen, and liver Bone marrow, spleen, and heart Bone marrow, pancreas, and liver 37 / 64Hypotensive action of is due to depletion of NA from peripheral adrenergic nerve endings. Reserpine Propafenone Diltiazem Clonidine 38 / 64Due to the toxic effects, clinical use of____ is replaced by calcium antagonists such as amiodarone and verapamil. Quinidine Procainamide Propranolol Diltiazem 39 / 64Nifedipine is a ____________antiarrhythmic drug Sodium channel blocker Potassium-channel blocker ẞ-Blocker Calcium-channel blocker 40 / 64_____ is a synthetic analogue of PGE, (a cytoprotective) and inhibits the secretion of gastric acid. Misoprostol Alprostadil Gemeprost Carboprost 41 / 64Myasthenia gravis is treated with______. Pyridostigmine bromide Reserpine Carvedilol Guanethidine 42 / 64Which of the following is another tertiary amine and naturally occurring belladonna alkaloid? Scopolamine Acetylcholine Methacholine Ipratropium 43 / 64The BuChE stands for: Butyrylcholinethyl Butyrylcholinenzyme Butyrylcholinesterase Bilcholinesterase 44 / 64Which one is a naturally occurring anti-muscarinic agent? Atropine Ipratropium Dicyclomine Tropicamide 45 / 64Pyridostigmine is an example of_____. Carbamates Organophosphorus compounds Acridine Choline esters 46 / 64Which of the following are soluble anaesthetics? Cocaine Tetracaine Bupivacaine Prilocaine 47 / 64Which one of these is an example of MAOIs? Imipramine Isocarboxazid Clorgyline Mianserin 48 / 64Which one is a positive symptom of Schizophrenia? Hallucinations in the form of voices Irritable bowel syndrome Flattening of emotional responses Loss of contact from the outer world 49 / 64Amylobarbitone is an example of ______ barbiturates. Short acting Ultra short acting Intermediate acting Long acting 50 / 64Which of the following is purine compound with chemical similarity to hypoxanthine? Sulfinpyrazone Allopurinol Probenecid Colchicine 51 / 64CTZ stands for: Chemoreceptor Terminal Zone Chemoreceptor Testing Zone Chemical Testing Zone Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone 52 / 64Which of the following promotes edema? Histamine Serotonin Bradykinin Prostaglandins 53 / 64General anaesthetics act over______ Complete body Local area Partial body Specific body part 54 / 64Which of the following is the strongest bonding between drug and receptors? Ionic bonding Hydrogen bonding Covalent bonding Van der wall bonding 55 / 64Which of the following vitamin is associated with the coenzyme biocytin? Nicotinic acid Thiamine Biotin Pyridoxine 56 / 64Which of the following enzyme is elevated in alcoholism? Acid phosphatase Hepatitis Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase Glutamyl transpeptidase 57 / 64Which of the factor is responsible for the modification of drug action? Route od administration Genetic factor Metabolic disturbances All of the above 58 / 64The treatment of hormonal deficiencies necessarily implicates the use of_____ therapy. Replacement Diffusion Genome Transplant 59 / 64Which one of the following is an advantage of parenteral route of administration? No first-pass metabolism Infection may occur Technical and trained person required Safety level is very low 60 / 64Which one is an advantage of oral route of administration? Sometimes complete drug is not absorbed Economical, sterilisation is not required Unpleasant taste of drugs Not effective in emergencies. 61 / 64The CCF stands for: Chronic Cardiac Failure Coronary Cardiac Failure Congestive Cardiac Failure None of the above 62 / 64The meaning of dynamics is______. Movement Power Distribution Metabolism 63 / 64Therapeutic index of a drug is_________ to its safety. Inversely proportional Directly proportional Relatively proportional None of the above 64 / 64__________is the study of drug and its action. Pharmacokinetics Pharmacodynamics Pharmacology Pharmacology Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz Join NowYouTubeTelegramInstagram