Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE ExamPharmacology DPEE MCQs / By fdspharmacy Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE Exam Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE Exam 1 / 64Niclosamide belongs to agents. Anthelmintic Antiprotozoal Antiviral Antifungal 2 / 64__ is a selective 5-HT3 antagonist having potent anti-emetic properties. Ondansetron Metoclopramide Chlorpromazine Meclozine 3 / 64_____ is a CDCA analogue formed from chenodiol by colonic bacteria. Chenodeoxycholic acid Dehydrocholic acid Sodium dehydrocholate Ursodeoxycholic acid 4 / 64Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme, and for therapeutic purposes it is obtained from the glandular layer of hog___. Stomach Liver Intestine Pancreas 5 / 64___ is a type of estrogen that forms during pregnancy. Estrone Estradiol Estetrol Estriol 6 / 64Clopamide is a ____ diuretic High efficacy diuretics Medium efficacy diuretics Adjunctive diuretics Low diuretics 7 / 645-Hydroxytyrptamine is commonly known as_____ Serotonin Histamine Prostaglandins Angiotensin 8 / 64Which is an example of directly acting expectorant? Guaiphenesin Ammonium chloride Ambroxol Carbocisteine 9 / 64Salbutamol is an example of ______ bronchodilators. Long acting sympathomimetic agents Xanthine derivatives Short acting sympathomimetic agents Anti-cholinergic agents 10 / 64Which of the following does not cause hazy cornea in a newborn? Endothelial dystrophy Mucopolysaccharidosis Sclerocornea Droplet keratopathy 11 / 64PRA stands for: Protein Regular Activity Plasma Rennin Activity Plasma Rennin Action Protein Rennin Activity 12 / 64PRA stands for: Protein Regular Activity Plasma Rennin Activity Plasma Rennin Action Protein Rennin Activity 13 / 64The COMT stands for: Catechol-O-Mono Transferase Catechol-O-Mono Thaimine Catechol-O-Methyl Transferase Carboxylic-O-Methyl Transferase 14 / 64The LSD stands for: Lenoiec Acid Diethylamide Lysergic Amine Diethylamide Lysergic Acid Diethylamide Lysergic Acid Diamide 15 / 64Which of the following drug is long acting barbiturates? Secobarbitone Phenobaribitone Amylobarbitone Methohexitone 16 / 64Which one of these is an injectable anaesthetic? Procaine Lignocaine Tetracaine All of the above 17 / 64Amantadine is an example of ______. Drugs that replace dopamine Direct DA receptor agonist Drugs that release dopamine Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist 18 / 64Sulfocamphocainum is an example of Analeptics of direct action Analeptics of reflexive action Analeptics of mixed action Drugs that influence medulla spinalis 19 / 64Lamotrigine is an example of________. Iminostilbenes Phenyltriazine PVC succinimides Benzodiazepines 20 / 64Which of the following are gaseous anaesthetics? Nitrous oxide Enflurane Halothane Ether 21 / 64Colchicine is used to_____. Inhibit uric acid synthesis Inhibit neutrophil migration into joint Increase uric acid excretion Inhibit inflammation and pain 22 / 64Paracetamol is used to treat a number of problems____. Reduce fever Migraine Pain associated with rheumatism All of the above 23 / 64Which one is not a side effect of aspirin? Analgesic nephropathy Aggravation of acute gout Gastrointestinal toxicity Arthritis 24 / 64Which one is not a classification of NSAIDS? Non-selective COX inhibitors Preferential COX-2 inhibitors Selective COX-2 inhibitors Competitive inhibitors 25 / 64Which one is a disadvantage of Ether? High margin of safety Cross tolerance with ethyl alcohol Brilliant analgesic Economical 26 / 64Which of the following process involves excretion of drugs through the saliva and this process involves passive diffusion? Biliary excretion Pulmonary excretion Mammary excretion Salivary excretion 27 / 64The BBB stands for: Body-Brain Barrier Blood-Brain Barrier Blood-Brain Body Blood-Barrier Bind 28 / 64Movement of a drug from its site of administration into the plasma or central compartment is known as: Absorption Metabolism Distribution Excretion 29 / 64Which of the following factor is not responsible for affecting the drug metabolism? Genetic Body temperature Humidity Inhibitors 30 / 64______ is the first purine analogue beneficial for neoplastic diseases. 6-Thioguanine 6-Mercaptopurine Azathioprine 5-Fluorouracil 31 / 64Bone marrow depression (neutropenia and anaemia) is the most common adverse effect of Zidovudine Lamivudine Stavudine Zalcitabine 32 / 64___ induces CYP3A4 enzyme responsible for its own metabolism. Indinavir Lamivudine Efavirenz Ribavirin 33 / 64Which was the first member of Quinolones to be introduced in mid 1960? Ciprofloxacin Norfloxacin Nalidixic acid Ofloxacin 34 / 64_____ is administered in enteric coated tablets to protect it from decomposing in gastric juice. Phenazopyridine Nalidixic acid Nitrofurantoin Methenamine 35 / 64______ is a water soluble, synthetic analogue of vitamin K. Phytonadione Menaquinone Menadione sodium bisulphite Menadione sodium diphosphate 36 / 64Organs involved in the process of haematopoiesis are________ Bone marrow, heart, and liver Bone marrow, spleen, and liver Bone marrow, spleen, and heart Bone marrow, pancreas, and liver 37 / 64Hypotensive action of is due to depletion of NA from peripheral adrenergic nerve endings. Reserpine Propafenone Diltiazem Clonidine 38 / 64Due to the toxic effects, clinical use of____ is replaced by calcium antagonists such as amiodarone and verapamil. Quinidine Procainamide Propranolol Diltiazem 39 / 64Nifedipine is a ____________antiarrhythmic drug Sodium channel blocker Potassium-channel blocker ẞ-Blocker Calcium-channel blocker 40 / 64_____ is a synthetic analogue of PGE, (a cytoprotective) and inhibits the secretion of gastric acid. Misoprostol Alprostadil Gemeprost Carboprost 41 / 64Myasthenia gravis is treated with______. Pyridostigmine bromide Reserpine Carvedilol Guanethidine 42 / 64Which of the following is another tertiary amine and naturally occurring belladonna alkaloid? Scopolamine Acetylcholine Methacholine Ipratropium 43 / 64The BuChE stands for: Butyrylcholinethyl Butyrylcholinenzyme Butyrylcholinesterase Bilcholinesterase 44 / 64Which one is a naturally occurring anti-muscarinic agent? Atropine Ipratropium Dicyclomine Tropicamide 45 / 64Pyridostigmine is an example of_____. Carbamates Organophosphorus compounds Acridine Choline esters 46 / 64Which of the following are soluble anaesthetics? Cocaine Tetracaine Bupivacaine Prilocaine 47 / 64Which one of these is an example of MAOIs? Imipramine Isocarboxazid Clorgyline Mianserin 48 / 64Which one is a positive symptom of Schizophrenia? Hallucinations in the form of voices Irritable bowel syndrome Flattening of emotional responses Loss of contact from the outer world 49 / 64Amylobarbitone is an example of ______ barbiturates. Short acting Ultra short acting Intermediate acting Long acting 50 / 64Which of the following is purine compound with chemical similarity to hypoxanthine? Sulfinpyrazone Allopurinol Probenecid Colchicine 51 / 64CTZ stands for: Chemoreceptor Terminal Zone Chemoreceptor Testing Zone Chemical Testing Zone Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone 52 / 64Which of the following promotes edema? Histamine Serotonin Bradykinin Prostaglandins 53 / 64General anaesthetics act over______ Complete body Local area Partial body Specific body part 54 / 64Which of the following is the strongest bonding between drug and receptors? Ionic bonding Hydrogen bonding Covalent bonding Van der wall bonding 55 / 64Which of the following vitamin is associated with the coenzyme biocytin? Nicotinic acid Thiamine Biotin Pyridoxine 56 / 64Which of the following enzyme is elevated in alcoholism? Acid phosphatase Hepatitis Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase Glutamyl transpeptidase 57 / 64Which of the factor is responsible for the modification of drug action? Route od administration Genetic factor Metabolic disturbances All of the above 58 / 64The treatment of hormonal deficiencies necessarily implicates the use of_____ therapy. Replacement Diffusion Genome Transplant 59 / 64Which one of the following is an advantage of parenteral route of administration? No first-pass metabolism Infection may occur Technical and trained person required Safety level is very low 60 / 64Which one is an advantage of oral route of administration? Sometimes complete drug is not absorbed Economical, sterilisation is not required Unpleasant taste of drugs Not effective in emergencies. 61 / 64The CCF stands for: Chronic Cardiac Failure Coronary Cardiac Failure Congestive Cardiac Failure None of the above 62 / 64The meaning of dynamics is______. Movement Power Distribution Metabolism 63 / 64Therapeutic index of a drug is_________ to its safety. Inversely proportional Directly proportional Relatively proportional None of the above 64 / 64__________is the study of drug and its action. Pharmacokinetics Pharmacodynamics Pharmacology Pharmacology Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz Join NowYouTubeTelegramInstagramShare this:Click to share on WhatsApp (Opens in new window)Click to share on Facebook (Opens in new window)Click to share on Twitter (Opens in new window)Click to share on Telegram (Opens in new window)Click to share on Pinterest (Opens in new window)Related